A 42-year old white
woman who has had hypertension for three years is referred to you because her
blood pressure has become increasingly difficult to control. Family history is
notable for hypertension. Her current medications are hydrochlorothiazide, 12.5
mg daily; atenolol, 100 mg daily; and extended-release diltiazem, 240 mg daily,
which recently was added to her regimen. Blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg supine
and 159/102 mm Hg standing. Funduscopic examination reveals sharp disc margins
with mild arteriolar narrowing. No carotid bruits are noted. Heart rate and
rhythm are normal; no S4 is heard, and the cardiac impulse is not displaced. A
soft abdominal bruit is heard over the left periumbilical area. No peripheral
edema is present.
Laboratory Studies
BUN: 10 mg/dL
Serum
creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
Serum
electrolytes:
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 3.6
mEq/L
Chloride 103
mEq/L
Bicarbonate: 27
mEq/L
Urinalysis:
Specific gravity 1.015; pH 6.0; trace protein and blood, no glucose; occasional
granular and hyaline casts
Duplex Doppler
ultrasound reveals features consistent with renal artery stenosis. Acceleration
times are normal, and resistive indices are 0.71 on the right and 0.74 on the
left.
Based on the
ultrasound findings, which of the following should you do next?
A. Order kidney
scintigraphy, with and without captopril
B. Add
benazepril, 5 mg daily
C. Add
irbesartan, 75 mg daily
D. Schedule
renal artery angiography
E. Refer for
renal artery bypass surgery
(Source: Dr. Brad Denker, Chief of Nephrology, Harvard Vanguard Medical Associates, Nephrology Staff, Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center and Associate Professor of Medicine, Harvard Medical School)
I would do a renal scintigraghy first since her RIs on duplex doppler were not > 0.80. The renal scintigram will help with the assessment of a functionally significant RAS lesion.
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